Ryft on “A Possible Disproof of God’s Existence” 19/12/09
David Smart has offered a brief objection. Oddly enough, his objection merely shows that he actually agrees with the argument.
Authored by: Mitchell LeBlanc.
David Smart, who goes by the handle Ryft Braeloch at The Aristophrenium has published a very brief response to my article entitled “A Possible Disproof of God’s Existence.” In his response, he concludes that “…that it is not God who vanishes in a puff of contradiction but rather LeBlanc’s argument.” I have been amazed at the misunderstanding which has followed my posting of the argument, and I hope to clear up Dave’s by the end of this article.
The Argument
I will reintroduce the argument of which we are speaking:
(1) If God exists, then God is necessarily omnipotent and necessarily triune.
(2) If God is necessarily omnipotent, then God necessarily can bring about any logically possible state of affairs.
(3) If God necessarily can bring about any logically possible state of affairs, then God necessarily can bring about a state of affairs that is brought about by a being that is not necessarily triune.
(4) If God necessarily can bring about a state of affairs that is brought about by a being that is not necessarily triune, then God is not necessarily triune.
(5) Therefore, God does not and cannot exist
The Objection
I will quote the objection in full, since it is quite short:
Given the first two premises (which must be given, as we are confronting orthodox Christian theism), his third premise ought never obtain; i.e., in order to obtain (3) LeBlanc is forced to contradict (1) and (2)!
How so? Consider what it is that (3) asserts: that God necessarily can bring about some X such that it was brought about by a being that is not necessarily triune. But given (2) which defines omnipotence as being able to “bring about any logically possible state of affairs,” and given (1) which defines God as “necessarily triune” (it is not logically possible for God to not be triune), we therefore observe that (3) contradicts these very premises…
The Reply
I must wonder whether or not this is an objection or a defense of my argument. Let us analyze:
(3) If God necessarily can bring about any logically possible state of affairs, then God necessarily can bring about a state of affairs that is brought about by a being that is not necessarily triune.
This premise garners support from the following:
(A) The state of affairs in which Toronto’s being flooded is brought about directly or indirectly by a being that has never been triune is a logically possible state of affairs
Imagine we have Bob who works at the city dam, who for some reason makes a computer error or falls asleep and as a result of such an action (or inaction) brings about that the city of Toronto is flooded. There is nothing logically impossible about this notion. Let it also be true that Bob is not triune. There is still nothing logically impossible about this notion. Given this, it is clear that (A) is true.
Now, let us assume (2):
(2) If God is necessarily omnipotent, then God necessarily can bring about any logically possible state of affairs.
This is a standard definition of omnipotence. Now let us bring in (1) and compile the premises with which we are currently working:
(1) If God exists, then God is necessarily omnipotent and necessarily triune.
(2) If God is necessarily omnipotent, then God necessarily can bring about any logically possible state of affairs.
(3) If God necessarily can bring about any logically possible state of affairs, then God necessarily can bring about a state of affairs that is brought about by a being that is not necessarily triune.
Now, we have seen that (A) is true, and that it meets the criteria for a “logically possible state of affairs.” As such, if (1) and (2) obtain (which David grants), (3) must obtain. But what does David say about this?
Given the first two premises (which must be given, as we are confronting orthodox Christian theism), his third premise ought never obtain; i.e., in order to obtain (3) LeBlanc is forced to contradict (1) and (2)!
Exactly! That is to say, the validity of (3) as a conditional shows that either (1) or (2) must be false! This is precisely what the argument is intending to show, and instead of this being an objection, David has agreed with the argument.
To elaborate, if (3) is to fail to obtain as a conditional, it must be due to the falsehood of either (1) or (2), not their truth. Indeed the truth of (1) and (2) (and of (A)) lead to the validity of (3) as a conditional.
Again, David states:
Consider what it is that (3) asserts: that God necessarily can bring about some X such that it was brought about by a being that is not necessarily triune. But given (2) which defines omnipotence as being able to “bring about any logically possible state of affairs,” and given (1) which defines God as “necessarily triune” (it is not logically possible for God to not be triune), we therefore observe that (3) contradicts these very premises…
It seems that David is stating that the “then” portion of the conditional can only obtain if God is contingently triune. I would agree, it is indeed by virtue of the fact that God is necessarily triune that he cannot bring about the logically possible state of affairs mentioned. God could bring about the state of affairs if he were contingently triune (that is, not necessarily triune) but I strain to think of how any Christian would make this idea of a contingently triune God comprehensible. In fact, David’s observation is made in my own argument:
(4) If God necessarily can bring about a state of affairs that is brought about by a being that is not necessarily triune, then God is not necessarily triune.
But God is necessarily triune and necessarily omnipotent so:
(5) Therefore, God does not and cannot exist
Conclusion
I am indeed confused by David’s objection, because based on what he says, he actually agrees with the argument.
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